Here is a video of my talk from the recent 70th birthday conference of Peter Sarnak. During a talk one always forgets to say certain things, so I realized that my blog could be a good place to give some extra context on points I missed. There are three things off the top that I can add before rewatching the talk. The first is that I made a typo in one of my collaborator’s name (oops!). The second is that I didn’t mention the work of Bost-Charles, whose influence on our work is clear. Indeed the \(m = 0\) version of the holonomy theorem (version III) in this talk is a theorem in their monograph. The third is that my presentation of known irrationality results for *explicit* zeta values makes sense in the context of framing of my talk, but it’s good to note that the irrationality results of Rivoal, Ball-Rivoal, and Zudilin (for example, at least (edit: one) of \(\zeta(5), \zeta(7), \zeta(9), \zeta(11)\) is irrational) in a closely related direction are amazing theorems. There’s probably more to say, and I might add some extra comments if I watch the video again).
Some incidental remarks concerning history I thought about when preparing my talk: I know from popular accounts that Apéry’s result came as a complete surprise. Similarly, the result of Gelfond-Schneider was a complete shock as well. (Hilbert was reputed to say that he didn’t think this problem would be solved within his lifetime.) Now these two theorems are “recent enough” so that the memory of their resolution is still within the collective consciousness of mathematicians. In the first case, I still know a bunch of people (Henri Cohen and Frits Beukers) who were actually at Apéry’s infamous lecture. But what about (edit Lindemann’s) proof that \(\pi\) is transcendental? I have no sense as to what was the reaction at the time, in part due to my lack of historical knowledge but also to the lack (as far as I can see) of easily available informal discussions about contemporary mathematics from the 19th century (I assume that personal letters would be the best source). The best (?) I could find was the following (quoted from here):
In fact his [Lindemann’s] proof is based on the proof that \(e\) is transcendental together with the fact that \(e^{i \pi} = -1\). Many historians of science regret that Hermite, despite doing most of the hard work, failed to make the final step to prove the result concerning which would have brought him fame outside the world of mathematics. This fame was instead heaped on Lindemann but many feel that he was a mathematician clearly inferior to Hermite who, by good luck, stumbled on a famous result.
First, this seems pretty brutal towards Lindemann (to be fair, the continuation of the text does give some more grudging praise of Lindemann). Second, which historians are being referred to here? This seems far too judgemental for the historians I have ever spoken to in real life. If this text is at all accurate, it seems to suggest that Lindemann’s result was lauded but perhaps not considered surprising to his contemporaries? I feel that this is recent enough that one should be able to get a fuller idea of what was going on at the time.
Going back in time further, I also wonder what Lambert’s contemporaries thought of his proof (in the 1760s) that \(\pi\) was irrational. When I was giving a public talk on \(\pi\) in Sydney I looked up Lambert’s paper. The introduction is quite amusing, with the following remark that suggests a modern way of thinking not much different to how I think about things today:
Démontrer que le diametre du cercle n’est point à sa circonférence comme un nombre enteir à nombre entrier, c’est là une chose, dont les géometres ne seront gueres sorpris. On connoit les nombres de Ludolph, les rapports trouvés par Archimede, par Metius, etc. de même qu’un grand nombre de suites infinies, qui toures se rapportent à la quadrature du cercle. Et si la somme de ces suites est unq quantité rationelle, on doit assez naturellement conclure, qu’elle sera ou un nombre entier, ou one fraction très simple. Car, s’il y falloit une fraction fort composée, quoi raison y auroit-il, pourquoi plutôt relle que telle autre quelconque?
(Or in translation, errors some combination of mine and google translate):
We prove that the ratio of the diameter of the circle to its circumference is not rational; something that geometers will hardly be surprised by. We know the number \(pi\) of Ludolph, and expressions for this number found by Archimedes, by Metius, etc. in terms of a large number of infinite series of rational numbers, which all relate to the squaring of the circle. If the sum of these sequences was a rational quantity, we must quite naturally conclude that it will be either a whole number, or a very simple fraction. For, if a very complicated fraction were necessary, what reason would there be to be equal to such a number rather than any other real (irrational) number?
I guess Occam was from the 14th century!



